CAL FIRE Fire Captain Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the assignment of the 10th Arriving Engine Company on the Second Alarm?
• What is the minimum length of inflatable rescue boats used?
• Which of the following is NOT a START triage category?
• Which of the following is an example of the toxins category among biological agents?
• Which component measures the forward rate of spread of a head fire?
• In Swiftwater Shore Based Operations, which tactic is used to encourage victims to remain on or near shore?
• In DRAW-D, which level corresponds to Defend?
• If the structure becomes involved in fire and you decide to extinguish, which PPE is required?
• Which engine company is responsible for establishing and staffing Staging on the Second Alarm?
• What is the standard air horn evacuation signal sequence used by RVC and CAL/Fire?
• Which statement about Class A Foam use guidelines is accurate?
• START stands for which of the following?
• In the Contingency Plan, which description correctly characterizes it?
• Which agency handles Hazardous Materials under the Emergency Support Functions?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the standard definition of a confined space?
• Structure Protection Groups should be assigned to geographic branches and be flexible/mobile to coordinate actions. To reflect this, which statement is correct?
• The Plan of Operation must identify which elements?
• Using the National Fire Academy Fire Flow Formula, what is the required GPM for a building 60 ft by 30 ft with two exposures?
• Which statement best describes a common denominator of fire behavior on tragedy fires?
• Which mode of operation is used when immediate action is necessary to stabilize or carry out critical operations?
• How is the Burning Index related to flame length?
• Which is a primary tactic?
• In the LAST acronym, what does the letter S signify?
• Which water management guideline is recommended during structure protection?
• In confined space entry, which roles must be filled?
• Which of the following is a function of the ICS Command Staff?
• Resource Support ESF is provided by which agency?
• Which Tactical Frequency is assigned to Fireground Operations?
• What is a key duty of the 2nd arriving engine company regarding water supply?
• Which of the following is a function of OCFA Command?
• Which action is part of the RIC Size-up conducted by the 3rd arriving engine team?
• Non-compliance with OSHA Two In / Two Out rules requires which action?
• According to CAL FIRE Structure Defense Tactical Operating Principles, what is the most effective form of structure defense?
• What is the first action to take when establishing incident command on an incident?
• On a high-rise incident, which role typically becomes the Operations Section Chief?
• Who must confirm that the request for additional frequencies for Divisions and Logistics has been filled?
• To whom must permission be obtained to use elevators?
• Which agency has Incident Commander responsibility for Haz-Mat incidents on on-highway unincorporated roadways, including freeways?
• In DRAW-D, which option describes Withdraw?
• What are the Operational Priorities for any hazardous materials release?
• Which statement best describes the difference between Size Up and ROC?
• Which item is included in the OCFA Transfer of Command aspects?
• Which document is developed to guide incident actions?
• What does the RIC monitor?
• Which WUI Placard field is captured on ICS Form 321?
• In the PACE framework, which description best defines the Emergency Plan?
• Which areas are included in the SOLAR PLAN?
• Which locations are included in the PROS PLAN?
• Which statement describes an action not part of the initial five MCI priorities?
• When connecting with a hydrant, what should be monitored?
• What is the order of the first five priorities in an MCI?
• Which action should occur to support interior search during a structure fire response?
• In High Rise operations, which role is located just outside the entry point, ready to relieve Fire Attack?
• Anchor & Hold focuses on which of the following methods to stop fire spread?
• Which element of the Tactical Engagement Principle describes applying enough firefighting power to prevail?
• Water rescues present themselves in three basic forms. Which is NOT one of them?
• In NFPA 1670, which level generally assesses the scene but does not perform technical rescue tasks?
• Which engine type is considered the best choice for WUI operations, with any properly equipped engine also being effective?
• In a high-rise incident, where does the RIC move injured Fire Department Personnel?
• What is the minimum safe approach distance for unknown hazards or gas releases during a Haz-Mat operation?
• What is the top priority for the Ventilation Group?
• Which factor increases defensible space requirement per structure triage guidelines?
• Which item is included in declaring EMERGENCY TRAFFIC?
• Which of the following is NOT a step in Recognition-primed decision making (RPD)?
• Which activity is included in the Best Management Practices metrics?
• Changing fuel type from timber and second growth to grass results in what change to rate of spread?
• Which agency handles Food ESF?
• What action is described for the 3rd Arriving Engine Company in the Water Supply assignment?
• Which item is not part of the OCFA Transfer of Command considerations?
• Which standpipe class has a riser that feeds the sprinkler system?
• Which agency handles Energy ESF?
• Which statement best describes OCFA incident objectives?
• In wildland structure environments, which condition describes structures abutting the wildland with a clear line of demarcation?
• In a high-rise incident, which officer receives a briefing from the Incident Commander and assumes Command?
• Primary Immediate Actions of the First Responder in a HAZ-MAT incident?
• Which agencies should ECC notify when a Haz-Mat response is needed?
• Shelter Deployment Zones are used as a last resort when which conditions are present?
• What is Mutual Aid?
• Which item is included in the OCFA ROC?
• In the Emergency Plan, which statement best describes its focus?
• What determines the initial tactics of the 1st arriving engine during a structure fire?
• What does MEDCOM stand for?
• Where is the Manifest located on a vessel?
• In swiftwater operations, what is the maximum depth allowed for shallow water crossings in concrete channels?
• What is a responsibility of the Evacuation Group?
• In a mass casualty incident, the third due company is responsible for which task?
• Which activity is the primary duty of the Triage Unit Leader after triage is complete?
• What is the duty of the 9th Arriving Engine Company during the Second Alarm?
• In Rescue Mode for the 1st arriving engine company, what is the first action to take?
• Which of the following is part of the ICS General Staff?
• What are the four START triage categories and their corresponding colors?
• In the Tactical Engagement Process (PACE), what is the Primary Plan primarily focused on?
• Which organization handles Mass Care ESF?
• What is the role of the 6th Arriving Engine Company?
• During the First Arriving Engine Company response, which information must be reported to ECC?
• What does the letter N represent in the B-NICE terrorist category acronym?
• Which option correctly identifies the responsibility of the 2nd Arriving Battalion Chief on the Second Alarm?
• What is the primary function of Division Tac?
• Fire Front Following is used after which tactics have been deployed?
• Which decontamination level indicates contamination is known and skin contact is evident?
• Which tactic is among the primary actions for Threatened Defensible?
• Who is responsible for accountability in Staging on the Second Alarm?
• In wildland structure environments, which condition involves structures scattered throughout the wildland area and usually more complex to defend?
• Static-water rescue refers to the rescue of live victims in which bodies of water?
• In the PACE framework, which description best defines the Contingency Plan?
• Which of the following is an OCFA incident objective?
• Which item is NOT considered a part of OCFA's 8 Critical Fireground Factors?
• How far from the building should the Incident Command Post be located?
• What defines a High Rise under Riverside County Fire Ordinance 787.3?
• Which of the following is a OCFA tactical priority?
• Size Up components include which of the following?
• What is the first priority in the Ventilation Group's stated order on First Alarm?
• Which item is evaluated under Road Access in the Structure Assessment Checklist?
• Size Up is best described as:
• Which standpipe class is wet and connected to a water supply with 1 1/2 inch outlets?
• What happens to rate of spread when wind doubles?
• Which engine company is assigned as the On Deck Crew on the Second Alarm?
• In a high-rise incident, the RIC is assigned to which division?
• What report does the Incident Commander obtain from the Division Supervisor?
• In Swiftwater Rescue Tactical Priorities, which priority corresponds to Reach?
• Which Tactical Frequency is designated for RIC Activation?
• Which type of radiation is described as heavy and unable to penetrate paper?
• Who assumes Command when the 2nd arriving engine company arrives and the 1st is in Fast Attack or Rescue Mode?
• What should the Plan of Operation identify regarding resources?
• Technical Rescue (defined) is best described as:
• Which is the preplanned and identified option if egress to a Safety Zone is compromised?
• What best describes a pincer attack in firefighting?
• Which item is included under Hazardous Materials in the Structure Assessment Checklist?
• The DEFAULT choice for tactical structure protection operations should be minimized according to CAL FIRE Principles. Which option reflects that?
• How does rate of spread change with a 20% increase in slope?
• Which is a secondary tactical action?
• Which agency handles Transportation ESF?
• Which topic must be covered in a post-incident Haz-Mat debriefing?
• At a current of 6 mph, what is the approximate force on the body?
• What is the minimum safety zone diameter relative to flame height?
• In swiftwater operations, which level corresponds to helicopter rescues?
• In Structure Fire SOG Fast Attack Mode, which step is included?
• Which entity handles Communications ESF?
• What is the first operational priority in a Haz-Mat response?
• In an initial attack situation, how does fuel moisture affect rate of spread?
• What is the purpose of a Report on Conditions (ROC)?
• Where does the RIC assemble?
• Where is the Bill of Lading typically located?
• What does Assistance-by-hire mean?
• Which statement best defines a terrorist?
• In the IRPG Risk Management Plan, which is a step?
• What is the minimum supply line diameter for initial structure fires?
• Which ICS form is used by the Ambulance Coordinator to track ambulance resources (If activated)?
• Leaders Intent emphasizes which primary priorities during WUI operations?
• Which of the following triggers an update to the ROC?
• Which rate of spread is defined as greater than 3 mph and requires significant augmentation?
• Which statement best describes the Risk Management Process components?
• What is an Assistance-by-hire Contract for Services?
• Structure triage guidelines advise avoiding which locations to reduce ignition risk?
• What is Automatic Aid?
• Which unit is responsible for ventilation during a high-rise first-alarm incident?
• Property owners have a responsibility to prepare their property for structure protection by providing:
• Which item is included in a firing operation briefing to promote safety?
• Which information will assist the RIC in performing their operation?
• What is the minimum recommended clearance around a structure?
• Prep and Defend is typically used when:
• On Second Alarm, which unit is responsible for establishing the Medical Branch / Unit?
• What is the first priority in Vehicle Extrication?
• Which ICS form is used to record patient information and hospital destination during transport?
• In Structure Fire SOG Command Mode, what must be met prior to interior attack operations?
• In an MCI, what is the primary action of the first due company?
• In High Rise operations, what is the position called that is located in Staging Area ready to rotate into On Deck?
• In wildfire structure protection, Prep and Go is a tactic used when:
• Which item is included in a ROC to monitor water supply status?
• Bump and Run is characterized by which primary approach?
• Which level of protective equipment provides the highest level of protection?
• What is the role of the 3rd arriving engine company?
• Which item is part of the HAZ-MAT acronym used during Haz-Mat responses?
• Which Tactical Frequency is designated for Logistics and Ground Support?
• Paddle Boat Operations require a minimum crew of how many including a leader?
• Which officer reports to the ICP for check-in with the High-Rise Kit on the Second Alarm?
• Which items are included in the initial report to ECC from the Company Officer?
• Which ESF covers Urban Search and Rescue?
• Which statement best describes the duties of the Transportation Unit Leader?
• Under the Two In / Two Out rule, how many personnel must be inside and outside the structure?
• Which ESF is Information and Planning associated with?
• Which characteristic qualifies a space as a Permit Required Confined Space?
• In the Risk Management Plan, what action follows 'Develop Controls and Make Risk Decisions'?
• What term is used to ensure personnel accountability during significant events?
• Best management practices use of metrics includes which of the following?
• What is a Mutual Threat Zone (MTZ)?
• Ground Support is assigned to which section?
• Which color represents Deceased in START triage?
• Structure triage classifies structures based on what factors?
• What is the 'Abandon the Incident' air horn signal?
• Swiftwater is defined as water moving at a rate greater than how many knots?
• Which action does the 1st Arriving Battalion Chief take regarding command?
• When you exceed your span of control, which action is recommended?
• Where does the 1st Arriving Truck Company report for check-in?
• In an MCI, what is the second due company's action?
• In the PACE framework, which option correctly describes the Alternate Plan?
• Which agency handles Public Works and Engineering ESF?
• In NFPA 1670, which level of rescuers is described as the most competent in technical rescue and typically provides supervision of other technician and operations qualified personnel?
• Which helicopter operation is listed as a task in the increasing hazard order?
• What is one action the 1st arriving engine company takes to spot apparatus at the fire scene?
• The Size Up process provides the basis for which of the following?
• What is the general rule for span of control in management?
• Check & Go is best described as?
• Under what condition may the 4th Arriving Engine be assigned to the Ventilation Group?
• Who coordinates interior operations as the Interior Branch Director on the Second Alarm?
• What is the primary duty of the Treatment Unit Leader?
• Which is the assignment for the 1st Arriving Truck Company according to Structure Fire SOG?
• During Swiftwater Shore Based Searches, what is the purpose of isolating the river?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a responsibility of Command?
• CAL FIRE Structure Protection Tactical Operating Principles identify the most effective form of structure protection as:
• Where does Ground Support move injured personnel from Staging?
• Which triage category indicates Not-Threatened status?
• Which of the following is not a factor in OCFA's Critical Fireground Factors?
• Which of the following is NOT a Mode of Operation?
• Which class represents Radio Active Materials in the nine classes of hazardous materials?
• In S-FACTS, which is the first structure triage action?
• Which action aligns with OCFA's command function regarding strategy?
• Who is responsible for Size Up?
• Before interior attack operations, which rule of engagement must be met?
• Tactical Patrol emphasizes which core activity?
• Which component is included in the firing operational briefing to promote firefighter safety?
• Which standpipe class is dry and designed for fire department use with 2 1/2 inch outlets?
• Fire Front Following is used as a follow up tactic under what conditions?
• Which statement accurately reflects a Command Principle?
• In Rescue Mode, which statement is true?
• In the B-NICE categorization, what does the letter B stand for?
• Which of the following is a containment method used in Haz-Mat incidents?
• In Downstream V, where should the rescue position be relative to the victim?
• According to the common denominators, most incidents occur on which scale?
• Which agency handles Health Services ESF?
• In Situation Awareness, which elements are essential for understanding the fire situation?
• General Rule - One RIC per stairwell.
• Which item is an element of a good ROC (Wildland)?
• Which is a ROC MODE option?
• What defines a Contact Rescue in swiftwater operations?
• What is the purpose of a Mutual Threat Zone (MTZ)?
• RIC is designated by what?
• In tethered boat operations, where is the crew leader positioned?